Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 02:44
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Why do men like women gold diggers?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How can MeTV Toons compete with other national broadcast TV networks?
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.